Please forgive me for asking such a crass question, but a psychology professor once made a passing comment about how easy it would be "to bed" a woman with BPD. (He wasn't saying that he'd do it; he was just sharing an observation.)
Is that true?
I mean (and forgive me for being so insensitive), I'm a guy in mid 20's with schizoid/avoidant symptoms who has never had a girlfriend in his life. I've never had sex, either. So, in theory, my chances of having sex with a woman with BPD are higher than those of having sex with a non-BPD woman?