Hey guys,
I've been really interested in issues in theoretical psychology. They really keep me up at night and cause me quite a bit of distress. I'm always amazed at how some of the most basic problems of psychology are still unresolved. Here's one of the things I've been thinking about.
As most of you are probably aware, there have been incredible advancing in neuroscience. The neurological, biochemical and herditary basis of mental, behavioural and personality disorders has been developed in the last few decades. However, the conclusions many people are coming to seem somewhat startling and counter intuitive.
Materialist monism is a philosophical theory about the nature of subjective consciousness. The theory holds that first person ontologically subjective mental phenomenon can be reduced to their causal neurological and biochemical antecedents. The process that this occurs usually involves taking "folk psychology" concepts like memory and investigating it such that it can be determined to either have no empirical foundation (i.e the id, superego or will) or to be reducible to a number of theoretical psychological constructs (i.e semantic memory, episodic memory, sensory memory, long term memory, short term memory etcetera). These theoretical psychological constructs are then upheld as being biological attributes and the materialist conception of subjective consciousness begins to be pieced together as the empirical research adds up.
The problem with this is that I'm unsure if theoretical psychological constucts are reducible to biological attributes. The idea that "semantic memory" is a biological attribute seems to beg the question about what type of biological attribute. Also, how can "semantic memory" be a specific biological attribute if the content of semantic memory differs from person to person. I'm sure you could substitute "semantic memory" for whatever theoretical psychological construct your interested in (i.e Bipolar Disorder, Major Depressive Disorder, Narcissitc Personality Disorder, etcetera) and ask the same question. If the brain activity is different or the private experience is different then what is the shared attribute?
There seems to be a great discontinuity between individuals and their experience of the world and with language use and behaviour being our only way to get a picture (this is an intentionally misleading metaphor) of how someone experiences the world it seems that even if the materialist doctrine held true it wouldn't follow that we could necessarily have the kind of knowledge that they claim is possible.
There is alot at stake here. The entire medical paradigm in psychology presupposes materialist monism and if you've been diagnosed with a mental, behavioural or personality disorder then the assertion is essentially that you posess an undiscovered biological attribute. Also, they're talking about our private experience! Can it really be reduced from the phenomenal to the material?
What do you think?
(Churchland explaining her brand of materialism http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=vzT0jHJdq7Q)
(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Eliminative_materialism)