In was an axiom of psychiatry that a so called normal individual must have persistent sexual desires.
As a result every psychiatrist has been asking for decades potential mature patients whether you have a sexual partner, whether you have sexual desire?
The lack of them was considered to be the brightest signes of mental dysfunction.
But why? What is so harmful for an individual or society if a person has no sexual desires? If one is not seeking out someone to sleep with?
Obviously none. One who is not looking for sexual intercourse is not a thereat, it not a rapist. Moreover, such standard contradicts the foundations of the Christian civilization which welcomes sexual austerity and celibacy. The native civilization of many psychiatry theorists.
It could seem for the first sight that society must support sexuality lowering among its members, because it is well know how many crimes are being related to sexuality and unsatisfied sexual desires.
I believe the solution of that paradox is following. S. Freud considered sexuality as the lowest, animal part of human physich which must be overcome by an individual willing to develop his reason. (Freud considered sexual desire to be essential only for men and women to be naturally asexual). I think there are no good reasons to contest Freud's views of the subject, because we all know how foolishly men behave craving for "love" sometimes. According to that theory as lower sexual desire as better for all. But psychiatry holds another opinion.
Being the tool of population control and one of the nefarious servants of rulers (as a Marxist i claim the ruling class) labelling as dysfunctional those who don't need sex psychiatry just supports the image of a man obsessed by desires and consequentially easily controlled by those who posses the resources. Sex free people are the real thereat to many, because they are too independent.
I was naively thinking that something has change over the course of the years, but, alas, nothing.
Opening the latest version of International Classification of Diseases Classification of Mental and
Behavioural Disorders 1993 we find F52 diagnosis "Lack or loss of sexual desire".
Reading that $#%^ I really wonder what diagnosis would the modern psychiatry put to Freud, the man who denounced sexuality?