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by Endymion » Sat Mar 28, 2015 7:18 am
Hi all. I remember somebody here once explaining the stats for the Hirschman et al. study (1995), in which around 89% of men exhibited arousal to prepubescent girls. That person provided a detailed explanation of how to arrive at percentages from the numbers used in the study. But I can't for the life of me find that explanation. I have a discussion going on elsewhere about the stats.
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Endymion
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by theclouds » Sat Mar 28, 2015 4:43 pm
Is it this part?
"Eighty subjects completed the study"
...
"Slide stimuli
Cronbach's alphas for the subjects' penile responses to the contrast, child slides and adult slides were .86, .85, and .80, respectively. Ten subjects exhibited no sexual arousal (i.e., no penile circumference change from baseline) to the contrast slides, 4 exhibited no arousal to the adult female slides, and 9 exhibited no arousal to the female child slides. Maximum penile tumescence
p. 687
means in response to each of the slide categories were: contrast, 4.23 mm (SD =3D 7.99, range =3D 0 to 58.93); adult female, 10.78 mm (SD =3D 11.80, range 0 to 61.48); and female child, 4.99 mm (SD =3D 8.60, range =3D 0 to 59.55). "
So...
71/80=0.8875
i.e. 89%
89% showed any amount of arousal; only about one-quarter showed equal or grater arousal to the child slides and narratives.
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by Endymion » Sat Mar 28, 2015 8:26 pm
Aha, thanks! That's it.
Feel free to get in on the debate, anyone. It's at isitnormal.com and the title of the thread is 'IIN to get annoyed when people say attraction to minors is abnormal?'
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